Take the 2-minute tour ×
Music: Practice & Theory Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for musicians, students, and enthusiasts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

My understanding is that the vast majority of western music uses equal temperament, i.e. all semitones have a frequency ratio of the 12th root of 2. However I can hear in my piano that the notes at the low and high extremes of the keyboard are ever so slightly out of pitch. It seems that the lowest notes are slightly flat and the highest notes slightly sharp. This is a digital piano from Roland so they must be doing this on purpose. Why is this? I suppose normal pianos are like this too - is it done on purpose or is it a historical thing?

share|improve this question
Usually pianos are tuned the other way, that is, high notes are tuned sharp, and low notes flat. See Railsback curve. Maybe your digital does not follow this and therefore sounds the way you describe to you? –  nonpop Dec 19 '13 at 16:00
Yes, the Railsback curve. I knew there was a name for it. I just forgot/couldn't hear which direction the deviation was in. –  Michael Slade Dec 20 '13 at 13:19
The proper term for this practice in pianos is called "stretched tuning". en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stretched_tuning –  Wheat Williams Dec 21 '13 at 12:25

3 Answers 3

up vote 19 down vote accepted

There are physical and psychoacoustics reasons behind it.

A vibrating string held by its two extremities can only vibrate at certain frequencies (cycles per second, expressed in Hertz, i.e. 1/second), which relates to the characteristics of the string (e.g. its weight per unit of length, its flexibility) and how it is used (e.g. the vibrating length — which is fixed by the instrument and the player; how much force is used to tense it — which is how you tune a stringed instrument). These are called partials.

For a ideal string, that is a string which offers no resistance to being bent or rolled, there is a lowest frequency at which the string can vibrate, the fundamental; every other frequency at which the string can vibrate is a multiple of this frequency. These particular cases of partials are called harmonics.

For example, the string of a middle A in the piano can vibrate at 440Hz, 880Hz = 2*440Hz, 1320Hz = 3*440Hz, 1760Hz, … When you hit the string with the hammer, the string typically vibrates with a combination of several of these frequencies.

Now go an octave higher. The fundamental of that A is 880Hz, with harmonics at 1760Hz, 2640Hz, 3520Hz, … As you can see, the harmonics of the higher A all are harmonics of the lower A. Thus, they sound right together.

In the middle range of the piano, its strings can pretty accurately be considered perfect and partials to be harmonics.

But if you go to the extreme range of the piano, it’s not the case any longer. The heavy string of the low notes can’t be rolled so easily (they are too large), e.g. This means that the partials not harmonics any longer. For example (totally fictional and probably wildly inaccurate), the frequencies of an low A tuned to 55Hz could be 115HZ instead of 110Hz, 172Hz instead 165Hz, … But this means that is you play a low 55Hz A with the A an octave higher, 110Hz, well, there is a 110Hz vibration (the higher A) and a 115 vibration (from the low A) at the same time. These conflicts and you can hear that something is out of tune (you could hear a 5Hz beating, e.g.).

To avoid this, the low A is tuned flat, let’s say at 52Hz, with partials (still fictional) at 110Hz, 167Hz, … Now when you play the low A alone? Its fundamental is at 52Hz, which your trained ear might perceive as a bit flat. But when you play both low As together? Now there is way less conflict between their partials. They sound good together.

Same with the high range on the piano: the very thin, highly constrained strings are far from an ideal string; their partials also . So you tune them sharp (once again, to your trained ear) to ensure they sound good altogether.

share|improve this answer
I would think that the best way to have a piano tuned is with every key at its actual(not fictional) frequency. This is because of consonance. This happens most in intervals when it is a perfect octave. If you were to play G# and A a diminished octave apart than you have lots of dissonance and very little consonance. This is true no matter what octave. On my piano only the low notes and not the high notes are out of tune with A in the subcontra sounding like G. C in the 5th octave on my piano sounds just as much like C as does middle C or C in the 3rd octave and doesn't sound sharp. –  Caters Jan 31 at 19:41
And the mechanical reason why the extreme strings have not-quite-harmonic partials is because they are thick for their length, more like a xylophone bar than a guitar string. The bass strings are thickened with a winding of heavy copper (otherwise they'd be fifty feet long). The extreme treble strings are (relatively) thick because a thinner string made of something strong enough, like Spectra or graphene, would slice through the hammer instead of absorbing the hammer's energy. –  Camille Goudeseune Feb 6 at 16:50

The technical term for this practice in pianos is called stretch tuning. Read the Wikipedia article here.

share|improve this answer

Octaves on a piano are not tuned pure.

Because of inharmonicity, the higher partials of a single piano string are slightly sharper than theory would predict.

Ideal harmonic series above 100Hz: 100 200 300 400 etc

Actual harmonic series above 100Hz (approximation): 100 200.05 300.2 400.6

The higher the partial; the sharper the pitch.

Shorter piano strings have a higher inharmonicity.

For an octave to sound in tune, all the partials of each note have to be as in tune with each other as possible.

If the 2nd partial of the top note equals the 4th partial of the bottom, it is called a 4:2 octave.

In tune octaves are wide 2:1's meaning the frequencies of the notes would be something like 100Hz and 200.2Hz. The culmination of this slightly sharper top note adds up to sharp treble notes, and flat bass notes, but this is relative to a tuner with no stretch. The octaves sound fine.

share|improve this answer
I think that technically the issue isn't so much that partials are sharp, but rather that all frequencies including the fundamental and the partials are flat of what theory would predict, but the effect on the fundamental is, in relative terms, greater than on the partials, so they end up being "less flat". –  supercat May 6 '14 at 18:27

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.