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How often radically new musical ideas become common practice? New in a sense where composer/performer is unquestionably first to abruptly depart with musical tradition with no similar precedent, even at small scale.

Also, let's focus only at a very small musical ideas, couple of measures at most, where you could show it and say, no one has ever done that before.

Has it ever been the case before modern music (e.g. atonal music) and music evolves with audience rather then winning everyone over?

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closed as too broad by Dom, Meaningful Username, Dr Mayhem Mar 17 '14 at 22:39

There are either too many possible answers, or good answers would be too long for this format. Please add details to narrow the answer set or to isolate an issue that can be answered in a few paragraphs.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

Rumca - this is such a broad topic that it would require books to fully detail. If you have a specific subset of this question that is askable, phrase do so. – Dr Mayhem Mar 17 '14 at 22:41
A broad question deserves a broad answer, so my answer is "Absolutely!" For some specific examples: google "diabolus in musica". Have a look at Carlo Gesualdo. Read contemporary reviews of Beethoven's music (he was the "rock star" of his age; many of his elders hated his music). Look up the audience's reaction to Stravinsky's first public performance. I'm sure there are loads of other examples that I can't give off the top of my head. – BobRodes Mar 19 '14 at 14:34

Sure there are plenty of examples of this in music history.

One example would be the opening chord of Beethoven's first symphony. It is a dominant seventh without any preparation. Prior to this chord, it was common practice that the dominant 7th had to be prepared smoothly through proper voice leading. In simply starting with it, LvB asserts that we are entering a new, harmony dominated musical era.

Another example would be the Tristan Chord. The opening chord in Tristan brings a sense of resolving to another harmony, but that harmony is no more settled. This the beginning of a five-hour opera that contains no traditional tonal resolutions until the final chord, and thus can be looked at as the birth of the modern in classical music.

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To clarify, Wagner was actually a Romantic composer and so the opera mentioned was written several decades after what is considered to be the end of the Classic Period. Further, it is irresponsible to pin the "birth" of something, especially "the modern" on one piece of music or composer. What about Berlioz, Debussy, Satie, Rossini, Schubert, Wolf, The Mighty Five, Brahms, and a host of other composers and their respective works? Many people were / are all doing different, new things simultaneously, which makes the poster's question so broad and therefore difficult to answer faithfully. – jjmusicnotes Mar 18 '14 at 0:31
Although I don't disagree with your point, I would say "irresponsible" is a bit strong. This isn't intended to be a forum for musicologists by musicologists, coming up with the last word in musical scholarship. (In such a case the word would merely be rude rather than an overstatement.) I might suggest "not entirely accurate" as a more appropriate characterization. – BobRodes Mar 19 '14 at 14:39

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