Take the 2-minute tour ×
Music: Practice & Theory Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for musicians, students, and enthusiasts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Possible Duplicate:
The same note on two staves

I have put red arrows where I am in trouble. As I understand this, I should hit D but it is already pressed down. Do I misunderstand something or it is a typo?

enter image description here

share|improve this question

marked as duplicate by luser droog, Matthew Read Nov 28 '11 at 18:15

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

3  
Similar: The same note on two staves? –  ire_and_curses Nov 26 '11 at 17:18
    
Yes, thanks :) I added the notation tag to this question. –  Ali Nov 27 '11 at 8:53

1 Answer 1

up vote 18 down vote accepted

In cases like this you should play the second D, cutting the first one slightly short to accommodate it. It's not a typo, just a choice by the arranger to take the least complicated & most readable approach to notating the music. Think of the printed music as communicating the intended sound, rather than exact movements of your fingers, and it should make more sense.

share|improve this answer
3  
+1 for the "communicating the intended sound" comment. That's the purpose of notation, and it's not, nor should it ever be, a perfect system. –  Josh Fields Nov 26 '11 at 15:44
    
+1 and welcome to the site! –  jadarnel27 Nov 26 '11 at 16:19
    
+1 and thanks. As for "communicating the intended sound" I cannot read mind (yet :) ), only sheet-music. –  Ali Nov 26 '11 at 20:15
1  
Here's one way to think of the "intended sound": this music has three "voices"--a melody voice, a bass voice, and a middle harmony voice. It just happens that on the last eighth note of the second bar, the melody voice and the middle voice are playing the same note. No problem, just play it as Ben suggested. If you think about it in terms of voices, that will help you to get an idea of what the composer intended. –  Alex Basson Nov 26 '11 at 22:31
    
Yes, my first guess was exactly what Ben writes because that's the only way that makes sense. Long story short, apparently you are allowed to break the rules a little to keep the notation simple. –  Ali Nov 27 '11 at 8:49

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.