The "Andalusian cadence" I-bVII-bVI-V is commonly heard as a repeated figure in Flamenco music as well as many pop songs, e.g. "Hit the Road, Jack":
In trying to think about how this cadence is typically perceived by the listener, classical music theory seems to give (at least?) two possibilities:
It is a perfect cadence: the V-chord at the end is heard to continually resolve into the tonic I at each repetition.
It is a half cadence: the I-chord at the beginning is heard to continually tense into the V-chord at the end, which then hangs there unresolved.
Generally I've been impressed by how much of pop music harmony can be understood by thinking in terms of perfect cadences (a V-I which ends a phrase or section) and half cadences (a phrase or section which ends in an unresolved V, often followed by a new phrase beginning on I). But in this case, I'm not sure I have a strong intuition about which kind of cadence this would be: or perhaps it is "ambiguous", or classical theory doesn't neatly apply here?
(I am aware that this is asserted to be a perfect cadence in the wikipedia article: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Andalusian_cadence But their argument that "[t]he Andalusian is an authentic cadence, because a dominant chord ("V") comes just before the tonic", is completely unconvincing: if a half cadence is followed by a phrase beginning in the tonic, we will also have a dominant followed immediately by a tonic. It seems to me that the relevant distinction is how the harmony interacts with sectional boundaries in the music, i.e. if the phrase or section ends with V-I, or if the V-chord comes as the last element of the phrase.)