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Apr
16
comment Why does a melodic half step resolve on the higher note?
@dom I will leave it at this! If you find fault with the theory I have used, you must also find fault with Rameau, Helmholtz and others who essentially use the same foundations to explain what is natural in music. It's ok if you don't agree with me or them but it is either your ignorance of the subject or you know something more than we do. But just arbitrary statements that look like they contradict the theory is not proof of anything and ultimately does not progress towards truer understanding.
Apr
15
comment Why does a melodic half step resolve on the higher note?
@dom, also, I am idealing the situation. Just because in practice things don't always match up is not evidence against the theory but that the theory is more complex than presented. It's like you are saying because most people believe the world is round, it is round... believe is not truth.
Apr
15
comment Why does a melodic half step resolve on the higher note?
@dom, um, the 17th partial is C#/Db in ET. It is used as a leading tone, just as F# is(leads to G in the key of C), as all non diatonic tones of C are used. Obviously the more distant overtones the less strength they have and the less binding force they have. The point is not about what people do with it but where it comes from. C# leads to the D note. Because it is distant though and equally valid to lead to C, if C or a C substitute(Am, F, etc) is felt as the acoustic root. Please don't try to grasp as straws to prove me wrong. You must present a more valid/valuable theory.
Apr
15
comment Why does a melodic half step resolve on the higher note?
Also, I have asked this specific question to many people, some foreigners who had cursory knowledge of western music: I play a C major scale and stop on the B note. I ask them if they had to chose what note most natural feels like the next note, they all have chosen the C note.
Apr
15
comment Why does a melodic half step resolve on the higher note?
@Dom It's not incorrect just because there is a discrepancy. Microtonality says little about the OT series. You are confusing natural with synthetic. Just because someone does something that is unnatural doesn't mean natural is wrong or incomplete. You say it makes zero sense to explain the LT. It like saying that it makes zero since why the western harmony resolves the dominant a 5th down, or why the I IV and V are the primary chords. You can choose to ignore what reality says but it doesn't you are correct. While culture plays an extreme role, the decisions that people make are not arbitrary
Apr
15
answered Why does a melodic half step resolve on the higher note?
Apr
14
comment The last note and only the last note!
@Basstickler Yeah, your input will be welcome. I feel there is a subtle but very important issue missing in the discussion. Basically we still haven't addressed "Why" it works in some cases and not in others. It's easy to cherry pick cases that proves the common view but that doesn't necessarily say much. How can one composer or improvisor do X and another do X' and people accept X vs X'? Is there some innate musical thing going on or is it all just psychology(A famous composer can get away with a lot more simply because they are famous?).
Apr
12
comment The last note and only the last note!
Yeah, but that's a default when covering songs. Basically you have to play it the way it goes by default. I'm more interested in how the composer was able to get "away" with it. Basically you said it would be a "let down" if the composer didn't go with the expectation. Why are some composers able to go against the grain and it work(not be a let down)?
Apr
12
comment The last note and only the last note!
. It sounds very analogous to a fishing story "Add worm(beginning)... wait... Sink hook(ending)". The waiting part is the "interesting" part and it seems to be ignored.
Apr
12
comment The last note and only the last note!
While I agree with a lot of what you said, on the surface at least, I think the reference to tonality seems to simply the psychological factors involved. Surely, The same types of psychological forces involved a listener of tonality applies to the same for non-tonality? Also, Your example about unexpected endings doesn't jive to well with the tonality explanation. You can't have it both ways... tonality is the resolution to the expectation, but it's ok not to fulfill that expectation if your Paul McCartney(or whoever)
Apr
12
asked The last note and only the last note!
Mar
30
asked Tonality and Rules
Mar
15
comment Singing Evolution: could I ever achieve the voice I want?
Your goal isn't to "sound like someone else". That is nearly impossible... But you can definitely learn to sing any style you want. Basically your goal is to develop your voice to be strong. It will always be "you"(you can't change that) but if you sing strong, it will sound "good" like all the people you want to sing like. Work hard, learn as much as you can, and in 10 years you will surpass your wildest imagination. If you give up before then, you won't get anywhere. You are literally having to "work out" the voice and build muscle strength and control just like a weightlifter.
Mar
15
comment Singing Evolution: could I ever achieve the voice I want?
You are limited by the physics of your "voice"(the mechanical aspects). E.g., No human will ever be able to sing a 100khz tone at this point in evolution. BUT! The human voice has evolved over millions of years and it could not do what it can do now! This tells you that the voice can change. Practice is the most important key. Your teacher seems to be inadequate. What she is really saying is: "I don't know how to help you learn to sing the way you want so I will just tell you that you can't". If I were you, I would be looking for a new teacher soon. Someone that understands the voice better.
Mar
12
asked Difference voices using same unison note
Feb
10
comment Do composers generally have a “logic” for motivic motion?
@ToddWilcox I'm not talking about "what they were thinking". I'm not wanting guesses. I'm asking about known facts. I.e., did they write anything down about it? Is it common knowledge at conservatories and by composers? Can it be shown directly from the score? e.g., we know a fugue has a certain formal layout, we don't have to guess about it or ask the composer what he did. It's obvious and no guessing involved. I have never seen/read anything about motivic relationships. My own analysis suggests that it is just harmonic and sequential relationships with no larger scale logic involved.
Feb
10
comment Do composers generally have a “logic” for motivic motion?
Do people just vote to close for fun or is there any real logic involved?
Feb
10
asked Do composers generally have a “logic” for motivic motion?
Jan
19
asked A seriously difficult question about mistakes and intepretation of music
Dec
24
comment Ideas on how to concentrate/not get lost when listening to a song for transcription/understanding purposes
yeah, I'm learning how to do all that stuff... Just never realized I should do it or that people did this sort of analysis of music. I always thought it was just a "feel" thing and I found it very hard to do by feel(since I would tend to feel things my own way and it would cause problems here and there).