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phoog
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Your analysis identifies the harmonic rhythm incorrectly. There are two chords per measure. The A♮ is a passing tone, not a chord tone.

Therefore, this is not a deceptive cadence.

Consider also that in functional theory, the submediant (vi) is related to the tomorrowtonic, which explains why it is the usual target in a deceptive cadence. The supertonic is related to the subdominant.

Another factor arguing against the interpretation of that beat as V7 is the absence of F and C.

Is it necessary to write the ''6'' on the middle note of each set of quavers to demonstrate that the middle bass note changes the chord to first inversion?

You can also use a horizontal line to indicate that the harmony stays the same above a changing bass note. The source, if the Bachgesellschaft is to be believed, does figure the middle note of each figure with a 6.

Your analysis identifies the harmonic rhythm incorrectly. There are two chords per measure. The A♮ is a passing tone, not a chord tone.

Therefore, this is not a deceptive cadence.

Consider also that in functional theory, the submediant (vi) is related to the tomorrow, which explains why it is the usual target in a deceptive cadence. The supertonic is related to the subdominant.

Another factor arguing against the interpretation of that beat as V7 is the absence of F and C.

Is it necessary to write the ''6'' on the middle note of each set of quavers to demonstrate that the middle bass note changes the chord to first inversion?

You can also use a horizontal line to indicate that the harmony stays the same above a changing bass note. The source, if the Bachgesellschaft is to be believed, does figure the middle note of each figure with a 6.

Your analysis identifies the harmonic rhythm incorrectly. There are two chords per measure. The A♮ is a passing tone, not a chord tone.

Therefore, this is not a deceptive cadence.

Consider also that in functional theory, the submediant (vi) is related to the tonic, which explains why it is the usual target in a deceptive cadence. The supertonic is related to the subdominant.

Another factor arguing against the interpretation of that beat as V7 is the absence of F and C.

Is it necessary to write the ''6'' on the middle note of each set of quavers to demonstrate that the middle bass note changes the chord to first inversion?

You can also use a horizontal line to indicate that the harmony stays the same above a changing bass note. The source, if the Bachgesellschaft is to be believed, does figure the middle note of each figure with a 6.

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phoog
  • 26.4k
  • 3
  • 44
  • 95

Your analysis identifies the harmonic rhythm incorrectly. There are two chords per measure. The A♮ is a passing tone, not a chord tone.

Therefore, this is not a deceptive cadence.

Consider also that in functional theory, the submediant (vi) is related to the tomorrow, which explains why it is the usual target in a deceptive cadence. The supertonic is related to the subdominant.

Another factor arguing against the interpretation of that beat as V7 is the absence of F and C.

Is it necessary to write the ''6'' on the middle note of each set of quavers to demonstrate that the middle bass note changes the chord to first inversion?

You can also use a horizontal line to indicate that the harmony stays the same above a changing bass note. The source, if the Bachgesellschaft is to be believed, does figure the middle note of each figure with a 6.

Your analysis identifies the harmonic rhythm incorrectly. There are two chords per measure. The A♮ is a passing tone, not a chord tone.

Therefore, this is not a deceptive cadence.

Consider also that in functional theory, the submediant (vi) is related to the tomorrow, which explains why it is the usual target in a deceptive cadence. The supertonic is related to the subdominant.

Is it necessary to write the ''6'' on the middle note of each set of quavers to demonstrate that the middle bass note changes the chord to first inversion?

You can also use a horizontal line to indicate that the harmony stays the same above a changing bass note.

Your analysis identifies the harmonic rhythm incorrectly. There are two chords per measure. The A♮ is a passing tone, not a chord tone.

Therefore, this is not a deceptive cadence.

Consider also that in functional theory, the submediant (vi) is related to the tomorrow, which explains why it is the usual target in a deceptive cadence. The supertonic is related to the subdominant.

Another factor arguing against the interpretation of that beat as V7 is the absence of F and C.

Is it necessary to write the ''6'' on the middle note of each set of quavers to demonstrate that the middle bass note changes the chord to first inversion?

You can also use a horizontal line to indicate that the harmony stays the same above a changing bass note. The source, if the Bachgesellschaft is to be believed, does figure the middle note of each figure with a 6.

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phoog
  • 26.4k
  • 3
  • 44
  • 95

Your analysis identifies the harmonic rhythm incorrectly. There are two chords per measure. The A♮ is a passing tone, not a chord tone.

Therefore, this is not a deceptive cadence.

Consider also that in functional theory, the submediant (vi) is related to the tomorrow, which explains why it is the usual target in a deceptive cadence. The supertonic is related to the subdominant.

Is it necessary to write the ''6'' on the middle note of each set of quavers to demonstrate that the middle bass note changes the chord to first inversion?

You can also use a horizontal line to indicate that the harmony stays the same above a changing bass note.

Your analysis identifies the harmonic rhythm incorrectly. There are two chords per measure. The A♮ is a passing tone, not a chord tone.

Therefore, this is not a deceptive cadence.

Consider also that in functional theory, the submediant (vi) is related to the tomorrow, which explains why it is the usual target in a deceptive cadence. The supertonic is related to the subdominant.

Your analysis identifies the harmonic rhythm incorrectly. There are two chords per measure. The A♮ is a passing tone, not a chord tone.

Therefore, this is not a deceptive cadence.

Consider also that in functional theory, the submediant (vi) is related to the tomorrow, which explains why it is the usual target in a deceptive cadence. The supertonic is related to the subdominant.

Is it necessary to write the ''6'' on the middle note of each set of quavers to demonstrate that the middle bass note changes the chord to first inversion?

You can also use a horizontal line to indicate that the harmony stays the same above a changing bass note.

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phoog
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