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Sep 22, 2020 at 19:42 comment added EdB123 thanks a lot for this! lots to look into. Yes, I'd say the C sharp is more of a passing note than an anticipation, as it is never a chord tone (despite its consonance with Fsharp and A). The composer could just as easily have gone with C natural, but as we are moving towards D they sharpened it to make it into a sort of leading tone? I suppose making the last quaver of bar 6 a V7 chord in D would be asking too much? (im aware it is not like this in the original score!)
Sep 22, 2020 at 19:28 vote accept EdB123
Sep 16, 2020 at 20:11 comment added Athanasius ...it could be labeled an "anticipation" in that sense. But that really doesn't say what it's doing functionally, which is more like a kind of passing tone that's held over between two harmonies and eventually moves toward D. I think the modulation to D effectively begins around that note, with the C# leading tone pushing toward D, and the ascending bass line E-F#-G-A leading to the strong cadential A-A-D in the bass. (Composers used to be taught patterns called "long cadences" that usually had a stepwise bass moving upward to scale degree 5 before a V-I cadence.)
Sep 16, 2020 at 20:07 comment added Athanasius @EdB123: modern harmony books call a 6/4 chord an "inversion," but historically it was treated as a dissonance, with the 4th above the bass generally treated like a 4-3 suspension would be, though sometimes it is an accented passing tone. In common practice music, it's treated as a dissonance, i.e., always approached by step or held over from the previous chord (like a 4-3 suspension). The C# in m. 6 is harder to classify. This is an ambiguous note more common in 19th century harmony. I mean, technically it is dissonant in m. 6 and becomes consonant with the F#-A in m. 7, so...
Sep 16, 2020 at 15:40 comment added EdB123 regarding the C sharp 'chromatic tone', it moves a whole step from B (i am only used to seeing chromatic tones move by half step both 'from' a note and 'to' a note)- so can this be viewed as a sort of appoggiatura ? Does its relationship to the PREVIOUS note not matter? Does it only matter that it ends up RESOLVING a semitone up/ down? Lastly, we definitely end the piece in D major, but when do you think the modulation to D actually took place? thanks!
Sep 16, 2020 at 15:31 comment added EdB123 Hi Athanasius, in light of your fantastic clarifications: With regards to the last (4-3) 'suspension' ( the cadential 64), is this in fact technically not a suspension because it is a chord tone? Or does the fact that it is the fourth above the bass mean that it is a dissonance regardless of it being part of the chord? I thought maybe it 'resembled' a suspension, like the '6-5' movement at the beginning of the piece? In bar 6 we have a C in the bar of E minor- is this an appoggiatura?
Sep 14, 2020 at 20:07 comment added EdB123 thank you so much! I have started to work through this myself- you are a huge help!
Sep 11, 2020 at 17:19 history answered Athanasius CC BY-SA 4.0