Timeline for Why does the iii chord function as a tonic chord if it has a leading tone?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Aug 16 at 7:26 | answer | added | Felipe Vieira | timeline score: 1 | |
Feb 3, 2021 at 18:08 | comment | added | piiperi Reinstate Monica | Maybe according to some theory, the emperor has clothes. But in reality the emperor has no clothes and the iii chord doesn't end a tune like a I chord does. :) | |
Feb 3, 2021 at 17:41 | comment | added | user50691 | What do you mean by leading tone? Its own? Or the LT of the key? The iii is a suitable sub for the I and creates the Maj7, this is probably why you said it has an LT. But it is also the rel min of the V as Tim stated. It can actually serve as a sub for both. | |
Feb 3, 2021 at 17:39 | answer | added | Michael Curtis | timeline score: 4 | |
Feb 3, 2021 at 17:10 | comment | added | Tim | Since it's the relative minor of that V chord, maybe. But when one considers Imaj7, iii is 3/4 of the way there. | |
Feb 3, 2021 at 17:01 | history | asked | user35708 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |