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Richard
Richard
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I notice that IIø7 or IV- is often used instead of II-7 or IV to create extra pull towards the tonic. For example: if you play IIø7 in the first inversion to I in the second inversion, IIø7 very much sounds like a dominant chord.

Could it be said to be a dominant chord in that case?

I notice that IIø7 or IV- is often used instead of II-7 or IV to create extra pull towards the tonic. For example: if you play IIø7 in the first inversion to I in the second inversion, IIø7 very much sounds like a dominant chord.

Could it be said to be a dominant chord in that case?

I notice that IIø7 or IV- is often used instead of II-7 or IV to create extra pull towards the tonic. For example: if you play IIø7 in first inversion to I in second inversion, IIø7 very much sounds like a dominant chord.

Could it be said to be a dominant chord in that case?

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Daan
Daan
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Minor subdominant as dominant chord?

I notice that IIø7 or IV- is often used instead of II-7 or IV to create extra pull towards the tonic. For example: if you play IIø7 in the first inversion to I in the second inversion, IIø7 very much sounds like a dominant chord.

Could it be said to be a dominant chord in that case?