I see that I've started learning music theory and havecreated a lot of confusion with my original question:
Assuming, so I have a crotchet pulse with triple meter.
Beat1, Beat2, Beat3| Beat1, Beat2, Beat3|...
The accent is always ondecided to send the 1st beatauthor of "How to read Music in 30 Days, English 2022 Ed. If I now build" a rhythm on it from 1/8 notes, there are 2 quavers per beatdetailed question that should clearly state my concern. Is the emphasis/accent (bold) for one bar then:
- Beat1(Quaver - Quaver) - Beat2(Quaver - Quaver) - Beat3(Quaver - Quaver)
- Beat1(Quaver - Quaver) - Beat2(Quaver - Quaver) - Beat3(Quaver - Quaver)
Like 1 or 2?
So is the accent on the first beat per bar (which includes 2 Quavers) or just the first Quaver of the first beat per bar?
If Beat1 is defined as stressed, then I assume that the notes that belong to this beat (in this case 2 Quavers) are "children's classes" or "subclasses" of that beat and are therefore all stressed, or am I wrong? A beat isAs it contains quite a lengthlot of time. Not a singular pointtext and sketches, so I thought every note placedthese are now attached in the half open time interval [Beat1; Beat2[ belongs to Beat1 and must therefore be stressed if going by the definition.
I think my earlier discussion would be very useful for this questionhandwritten form (especially the conversation with u/CharlietheInquirerI hope this doesn't lead to any forum rules being broken):
https://www.reddit.com/r/musictheory/comments/10bq3y7/how_would_i_even_play_2_notes_in_one_beat/
I've drawn another example based on the comments, would that be the correct conclusion?