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Jul 27, 2020 at 20:28 vote accept CommunityBot
Dec 23, 2019 at 23:06 comment added Rockin Cowboy @Tim I wanted to ask the community to weigh in on our discussion for the benefit of others who may wonder. So I just posted this question (music.stackexchange.com/q/93484/16897)
Dec 23, 2019 at 22:35 comment added Rockin Cowboy @Tim I am sure there are cases where it's just fancy. I am also sure (from personal experience) that there are many cases where one voicing either sounds better or works better than the others. I use different voicings of G major in different songs based on what elses is happening with the music when the chord is played (is there a baseline being played?, is the melody descending or ascending?, what melody notes are most prominent at the time the chord is being played?, etc). In fact, in some arrangements, I will use one voicing of G in one part of the song & a different one elsewhere.
Dec 22, 2019 at 20:37 comment added Tim @RockinCowboy - I wonder just how valid these finer points really are in the bigger picture, or whether they're just fancies, or even things done in ignorance. I really would like to know how valid they really are.
Dec 22, 2019 at 20:31 comment added Rockin Cowboy @Tim agreed. Just an assumption. A possibility. Perhaps an opinion of the arranger. Might work just as well to play another voicing of the G chord.
Dec 22, 2019 at 20:29 comment added Rockin Cowboy The chord shown in the tab is one particular voicing of a G chord in first position. It might be used because the arranger or composer felt like that particular voicing sounded best with the underlying melody of the song. That voicing involves the muting of the A string with whichever finger you use to fret the low E string (by tilting it down just enough to mute the A string). There are at least 5 different voicings of a G chord in first position to choose from in a given situation. You can see them all here: (music.stackexchange.com/a/31061/16897)
Dec 22, 2019 at 20:26 comment added Tim @RockinCowboy - without that 'valid reason' we're none the wiser!
Dec 22, 2019 at 20:22 comment added Rockin Cowboy @Tim it might be a voicing of the G chord that the composer felt fit in with the underlying melody better without the b note on the bass end of the chord. I think the high b (open b string) is more prominent when you take the low b out of the voicing. Perhaps the higher b is part of the melody. In other words - I don't know but there might be a valid reason.
Dec 21, 2019 at 15:47 history became hot network question
Dec 21, 2019 at 13:55 comment added piiperi Reinstate Monica @Tim The question was for the OP. :) I meant, if muting one string is a problem, how about muting all strings...
Dec 21, 2019 at 11:29 comment added Tim @piiperiReinstateMonica - by muting all the strings! Either by using fretting hand fingers loosely over the strings just where they were, or using the side of the palm on the strumming hand - not so easy. Using all barre chords, some players put a 'scrunchie' over the strings, fret 1 or 2, meaning they can play all chords above, but not touch strings at all with fretting hand for xxxxxx.
Dec 21, 2019 at 11:25 comment added piiperi Reinstate Monica How do you play the all muted chord with all X noteheads?
Dec 21, 2019 at 8:28 comment added Tim Will someone explain why that 5th string can't be pressed down on the 2nd fret, making it easier to play, and stll sounding good? There's another M3 coming from the 2nd string open.
Dec 21, 2019 at 7:41 history edited TaylorSwiftFan5932 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 21, 2019 at 7:39 answer added TaylorSwiftFan5932 timeline score: 6
Dec 21, 2019 at 6:53 history asked user64861 CC BY-SA 4.0