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Oct 15, 2020 at 14:03 vote accept Michael Curtis
Oct 15, 2020 at 5:02 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
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Apr 18, 2020 at 12:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackMusic/status/1251480624155840518
Apr 18, 2020 at 3:16 answer added Athanasius timeline score: 1
Feb 13, 2020 at 21:16 history edited Michael Curtis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 13, 2020 at 19:47 comment added Michael Curtis Maybe I misread your comment's tone, but "that's news to me" seems sarcastic. I couldn't tell if you were trolling me, to make me go out and quote first species counterpoint.
Feb 13, 2020 at 19:02 comment added Tim If I'd understood it, I wouldn't be asking. Nitpicking doesn't have anything to do with it. There would be no point, so I didn't.
Feb 13, 2020 at 18:54 comment added Michael Curtis The point is just that the clausula vera is sort of inverted in Phrygian with the half step above the tonic rather than under it. As far as definitions go, the question is very much about history and the terminology runs across centuries and various languages. What's the point of nitpicking definitions when the meaning is understood in context?
Feb 13, 2020 at 18:53 comment added Michael Curtis @Tim books.google.com/…
Feb 13, 2020 at 18:53 comment added Michael Curtis @Tim books.google.com/…
Feb 13, 2020 at 18:42 comment added Tim Phrygian's leading note is a semitone above the tonic? What's the definition of a 'leading note'? The penultimate in a scale, as long as it's only a semitone below the tonic? Does that mean that a semitone above the tonic can also be termed 'leading note'? That's news to me.
Feb 13, 2020 at 18:28 history edited Michael Curtis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 13, 2020 at 18:18 history asked Michael Curtis CC BY-SA 4.0