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Feb 18, 2020 at 16:30 comment added Tim The embryonic question is the one still to be asked...
Feb 18, 2020 at 16:29 vote accept Alan
Feb 18, 2020 at 16:29 comment added Alan Hi Tim, you are correct, and I give you accepted answer, though somewhat begrudgingly after the unnecessary [and I'd deem] inaccurate accusation of my question being 'embryonic'! I was wrong because I thought human vocal overtones could be inharmonic. After playing with an audio spectrogram and reading online, I see I was mistaken; human vocals are remarkably close to ideal oscillators. But do allow me to say your statement "may change the number or mix of overtones slightly...", is a little off; it's absolutely necessary for overtones to vary if the timbre does.
Feb 18, 2020 at 15:44 history answered Tim CC BY-SA 4.0