It seems user314159 got it right in his comment where he said there is no consensus, and to prove it here's yet another approach by the composer and piano pedagogue Louis Kholer, where he, interestingly enough, specifies the finger for the f# in the second (an octave below) passage, but not in the first passage.
The two phrases are almost identical and the hand his positioned the same way (4th finger on the A and 1st on the E) in both of them before playing the D#-F# sequence. The only difference is that in the first passage the f# is in the middle of a 8th notes group, where in the second passage it is in the beginning. So, if this has any purposeful meaning, it seems that for Kholer the beginning of a note group would be a more adequate place to reposition the hand.
I've always played it with the 4th on the first passage and the 5th on the second, it's hard for me now to have an unbiased opinion weather this makes any sense or not...