Let's say a modern orchestra wants to perform a piece of music composed by Mozart. Which of the following is true?
- Mozart wrote the score for every instrument in the orchestra. Those instruments remain as "modern" today as they were in the 1700s. If any new instruments have been invented since Mozart wrote the score, they cannot be used in the performance.
- Mozart wrote the score for every instrument, but some of them have become obsolete. Someone (who?) translated Mozart's score to modern instruments that the orchestra uses. That someone also created appropriate scores for instruments that have been invented since the 1700s.
I genuinely don't know the answer. Option 1 seems more natural since in option 2, each of Mozart's compositions would have at least one extra author. It's also difficult to believe that everyone will agree on one authoritative person to do the "translation". However it's also hard to believe that there's been no technological progress since the 1700s. This would imply that engineers in the 300 years since have failed to create better instruments - if they managed, then even if the names of the instruments are the same, the music would sound different from what Mozart intended. I also remember reading that harpsichords used to be quite common, but have since been replaced by the piano.