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In a piano piece I am studying (Bourlesq in G Major, bar 10), I encountered a counterintuitive fingering (two notes separated by a tone have to be played with fingers 1 and 4). Is it a mistake from the sheet music or me who does not understand correctly?

bar

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    There is no 'have to be played with. It's a suggestion, and often there are other combinations that will work just as well, if not better for some players. It's always worth considering all options for fingering. Try the suggested, by all means, but part of playing a new piece is working out personal fingerings.
    – Tim
    Jun 15 '20 at 17:32
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The notes played by 1 and 4 are separated by four semitones or two tones (a major third). The thing that seems most likely to be confusing here is that the lower note in the first beat is assigned 2, the index finger, while the next note, which is higher, is assigned 1, the thumb. This makes sense when you realize that the lower note is a "black" note, so it is difficult to reach with the thumb.

The reason the G and B are given 1 and 4 rather than 1 and 3 is that the second option is almost impossibly awkward given the 2-and-5 fingering on the first beat.

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