Chord progression for 1st 4 bars of Bach Prelude from Cello Suite No 1 Cello in G

Question

The harmonic reduction of the first four bars of the Prelude goes like this:

B | C | C | B

D | E | F#| G

G | G | G | G

When I hear this and also based on my understanding of tonal harmony, I'd analyse the third chord as a V7 over a pedal G (implied D), or at most a dim vii over pedal G. It's just a very standard I - IV - V7 - I progression over a tonic pedal.

My cello teacher insists that it's a Gmaj7 with 4-3 suspension. I find that analysis very odd in context, since Gmaj7 is not a exactly a cadential chord and does not establish the tonal harmony of the piece.

What do you all think?

Answer 1

The standard modern textbook answer using basic harmonic theory would be to view it as a I-IV-V⁷(incomplete)-I sort of progression over a tonic pedal.

The assumption in most treatment of classical theory is that a I⁷ implies a dissonant seventh that will generally tend to resolve down by step. The seventh above the bass in this case resolves by ascending, so it's not a standard use of the "classical" seventh chord. So no, I wouldn't agree with a teacher who would label this as a major seventh chord, as least according to standard classical theory. (Jazz theory treats sevenths differently and less strictly.)

That said, there is at least something in the idea that the C-B is a kind of suspension: the C does want to resolve down (and ultimately does). Actually, it's not really a suspension, but a neighbor tone, a dissonant fourth above the bass. If you look at your reduction in the question, you can see an overall B-C-B motion in the upper voice, and a rising D-E-F♯-G ascending line in the middle voice.

That latter interpretation is closer to how Bach probably viewed this himself, as Roman numerals didn't exist yet in his time. He would have thought of this contrapuntally, with a static G bass, an ascending middle line, and a top voice with a neighbor tone motion. In effect, the B-C motion creates a dissonant fourth above the bass that needs resolution, then the middle voice rise to F♯ creates an F♯-C tritone that increases the need for resolution, which then moves to G-B in the next bar.

However that gets translated into Roman numerals depends a bit on what assumptions you're making (e.g., are we just speaking functionally and calling it a V⁷, even without the "root" D?). But yes, most modern theory texts would probably see this as a series of incomplete harmonies implying a I-IV-V⁷-I over a pedal.

Answer 2

I studied classical composition with real contemporary composers at 2 conservatories and finally one other music academy. The consensus that these composers all pointed out, is that Bach obviously didn't think about vertical harmonies like we do today, because he came from a polyphonic musical tradition.

So all of his harmonies are a result of voice leading, and the basic structure-ornament, structure-ornament, structure-ornament etc form. Which is the most essential classical compositional technique. It's really the bread and butter of composition.

Taking three notes, as a (beginning) structure, then give this structure an ornamentation by giving each or some of the notes its neighbor (chromatic or diatonic) notes. Of course it's up to the composer to stretch this form with using the ornamentation as the new structure, and giving that its own ornamentation.

I believe that's whats happening here, (structure-ornamentation-ornamentation-structure) just to get back to our starting point for the fourth time. It has nothing to do with functional harmony, I believe in Bach’s time it didn't even exist as today. And also the point in classical composition is that chords are not preexistent, but they are born as the composition evolves, from the smallest structure through ornamentation. Anyway, it’s a topic to talk about for years, and that's what composition students do at academies. I hope it helped a little bit.

Cheers,

David