So, today, the tides washed up this question from years ago: In 3/2 time why is a whole-note rest used as a bar's rest when a whole-note doesn't fill the measure?
This reminded me of a noob question I've been wondering about for years: Is there actually any difference between, say, a 3/2 at ♩ = 60 and a 3/4 at ♩ = 120?
I assume that a composer and/or engraver would choose between those two depending on what would be easier to read for a certain piece of music. But aside from that, is there any difference in how you'd count and emphasize those? Or could I take any generic waltz in 3/4, halve the tempo, halve all the note durations, replace the 3/4 with a 3/2, and get the same piece of music?
Sorry if this sounds like a stupid question, but I'm mostly educated in maths and physics, and as I begin to understand music theory it seems to me that, while music is rooted in maths and physics, and often borrows mathematical concepts, they are not always applied in a way that is consistent with their uses outside of maths.