i was wondering if someone could clear up whether this is some sort of deceptive cadence or not.
We are recently back to Bflat Major. The very last beat of the previous bar is F7 (labelled here natural 4/2), which leads to ii (in my analysis). I understand the beginning of the next bar could also be seen as a continuation of V7 moving to a IV chord in root position at the E (pictured here with a 6 underneath). I decided against this, as the G and b flat in the top part over the E and A in the bass seemed to most likely indicate a move to ii anyway, although they could be interpreted as the 9th and 11th of V7 (11).
So, can a V7 move to ii? Is this some sort of deceptive cadence? Can it move to IV? Or perhaps the B flat and G in the top part are merely the 9th and 11th of a whole measure of V7 (11)?
I have written ''6'' in brackets underneath 2 notes in the bass. For argument's sake, let's say that first group of three quavers is an arpeggiation of ii, and the next group of 3 is an arpeggiation of V7. Is it necessary to write the ''6'' on the middle note of each set of quavers to demonstrate that the middle bass note changes the chord to first inversion? Or can I just leave it blank until the harmony changes? How do I know when a figure is required when the harmony stays the same?