This is from the book "The Art of Piano Fingering." I'm stuck at this point. I have checked out related/duplicate questions but wasn't able to understand the answers concretely.
I think I get the intentions of writing it this way but I'm still not sure on how to execute this.
Is this a reasonable interpretation?
- First hold C2 and C3 with 1 and 5 in LH
- Then I let go of only the thumb(1) on C3, with pinky(5) still holding on C2
- Then I play C3 again with NOT ONLY the thumb(1) of the LH and but also the thumb(1) of the RH, at the same time, the LH thumb(1) will now continue to hold with the LH pinky(5)
- This way my RH can now move away and continue with remaining notes with bottom C2-C3 octave preserved?