Sorry if this is a bad question, the music reads like this

A #F D F A F D F

now you can see only the first F is raised, but on the piece is actually played with all Fs' of that measure raised. Is this just a bad composer, or am i simply missing something?

  • imgur.com/a/zxQajHf The second measure is the measure in question – Brian Feb 4 at 8:32
  • 3
    I imagine the word needed is accidental rather than accented - they're very different meanings , particularly in music. – Tim Feb 4 at 8:42
  • ...and FYI “accented” refers to a note being played with emphasis or louder than other notes, uses the symbol > and only applies to the individual note it is written on. – John Belzaguy Feb 4 at 9:05

Any accidental - usually a sharp, flat or natural which is contrary to the key signature - will relate to that note , at that pitch only, for the rest of that bar, unless cancelled by a subsequent accidental referring to that same note.

  • by "bar" do you mean for the rest of the piece, until another accidental is placed on that key? EDIT: nvm i got, big thank you! – Brian Feb 4 at 9:51
  • No. the vertical lines are barlines, so between any two lines there's one bar. The very next barline annuls any accidentals in that actual bar, so they don't carry on to the next. If needed again, they must be re-written. – Tim Feb 4 at 10:09
  • It should be "on that line only", right? Incidentally, I read that from your answer here – Edward Feb 5 at 0:05
  • @Edward - if the affectected note is on a line, yes. If it's in a space, then the same applies.If there's another F, higher or lower, the accidental does not affect that other one. – Tim Feb 5 at 7:24

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