The dominant chord is defined in relation to the (5th) scale degree on which it is built. This definition can often be found alongside other chord types, such as the major triad, whose definition merely (I think) specifies its internal pitches ({0, 4, 7} in integer notation).
It seems to me one can talk of a major/minor chord just based on those internal pitch relations of its own constituent notes, without reference to the context in which it appears (e.g. the key), whereas to talk of a dominant chord requires (does it not?) a further specification of a key or cadence in which said chord functions as the V.
Is it, in fact, the case that indeed "dominant chord" presupposes a key (relative to which the given chord functions as V)? If so, why are dominant chords discussed in (apparent) isolation of a functional harmony, just as a chord type?
Or is it in fact the case that a key assumption is always (at least tacitly) present, even when one just talks of a plain major chord? If so, then the apparent paradox is that the dominant chord is of course (assuming it has no added seventh) itself a major chord.