In ABRSM "The AB Guide to Music Theory, Part I, Ch 11.2" on "The Slur": they show the following example (Bartok, For Children, Vol. 1 No. 3)
And they say that the end of a slur implies a slight shortening of its last note, with a brief silence before the next note.
Given the above, why in the following example (Beethoven Sonata in G, Anh 5 no 1, first movement) the suggested fingering has a substitution 4-1 (highlighted in the circle)?
Is it to play legato? But the half note is outside the slur, so based on what it is said above there should be a brief silence before it and not legato.
I would have just used 1.
UPDATE In the same ABRSM book cited above in Ch 11.5, I found a note that seems relevant: Composers of the classical period would usually have divided a legato phrase into smaller sections each with a separate slur, usually ending at the bar-line or before the last note