Does anyone know whether the inharmonicity in an interval between upper partials is expected to be greater or lesser than the inharmonicity in same interval between a fundamental and a partial?
Here's an example. Suppose I tune A4 on a piano to 440. I then tune the A3 to the A4, which requires tuning A3 a bit flat of 220, so that its second harmonic rings at 440 Hz, matching A4. Now, both A3 and A4 will have A5 as a harmonic (fourth harmonic and second harmonic, respectively). Which of those two A5's would I expect to be sharper?