I understand that the bass of V65 or V6 wants to move up to I. My text book does have some double neighbor figures where V65 goes to V43 before resolving to I or I6. However, I am unable to find an example where V65 or V6 moves to V7 root position. Is this not a good chord progression or perhaps not a common one?
Moving between inversions of the same chord, or even different chords with the same function (for example - moving from III to V without sharpening the dominant with a 7) usually results with weak progressions. It is more common to sharpen the dominant by adding a 7th to the chord, or using different suspensions (or tensions).
Moving from a V6/5 to a V4/3 is possible, but to me sounds too redundant (at least with a direct progression), and it requires a weird leap in the bass. Most of the times inversion changes in the dominant would be V -> V6 (or V6/5), V -> V4/2, V -> V7, or other suspensions like V4 -> V7 - I4 - I, or even V7(b13) - > V7 -> I, etc. Pay attention that all of those progressions suppose to sharpen the dominant, Make it more dissonance and carry more tension towards the solution, but the progression between V6/5 to V7 is weakening the dominant, and therefore should be avoided (unless this is what you're trying to do).