I am reading Reger's book of modulations, and his analysis does not seem to me to be the most consistent. This example (No. 72, from a minor to F♯ Major) comes across as particularly odd:
Here is the weird bit compared to a (IMO) less convoluted alternative.
Why would he assign a minor dominant and a minor subdominant in a major key when he could have used only basic key-based triads? In case you're wondering: In several other examples, he doesn't mind pivoting on the first chord.
Do you think he probably didn't care that much, or is there some deeper logic to consider here? Do you prefer the alternative?