1

enter image description here

Here in this voice leading exercise I am doing I have 73 going to 63 in the figured bass but I am not sure what this means for the voice leading. I understand the 7-6 means that the 7th above the bass becomes a 6th above the bass but how would the 73 chord be spelt in the first place? I have doubled the C in my solution to the exercise but perhaps I should have had a 5th or kept the 6th coming from the previous chord?

Also, on a separate note, After a ii6 chord would going to a IV7 not be going backwards? From my understanding, IV usually comes before ii6 not after...

Improve this question
9
  • There's no suspension in your realization of the exercise, just an upper neighbor motion in the soprano voice.
    – Aaron
    Commented Jan 27, 2022 at 17:38
  • Sorry, I rewrote the question.. hope its clearer
    – user35708
    Commented Jan 27, 2022 at 17:52
  • @Aaron that's because the figures specify an upper neighbor motion rather than a suspension.
    – phoog
    Commented Jan 28, 2022 at 0:02
  • @phoog The question was edited after my comment. Originally the question specifically referenced a 7-6 suspension.
    – Aaron
    Commented Jan 28, 2022 at 0:42
  • @Aaron my point is that the absence of a 7-6 suspension is not a feature of this realization of the exercise; it is a feature of the exercise itself.
    – phoog
    Commented Jan 28, 2022 at 0:52

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
2

You're correct that, in this style, IV comes before ii and not after.

These 7–6 figures are tricky, because it looks like the figures are telling you to write a seventh chord (hence IV7) on the downbeat. But in actuality, that 7 is a non-chord tone, and the true figure is only 6 (hence a first-inversion chord, or ii6).

Think of it much like the cadential six-four: the 6/4 don't really tell you what the chord is, but rather they're accented non-chord tones that delay the true figures of 5 and 3. The same is true here: the 7, a non-chord tone, delays the 6, the actual chord tone.

As such, both beats 3 and 4 are ii6 chords, it's just that we have an accented non-chord tone B on beat 4. What you have in your image is correct, especially since you're not doubling the A in another voice (which would destroy the impact of the B non-chord tone). Note, though, that you're doubling the bass in your solution, not the root.

Improve this answer
0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.