4

One progression I come across often (in tonicizations or modulations) is V7 to VI∆7. For example: G7 to A∆7.

In playing with it, I notice that the V chord can be in many different forms, including dominant and sus chords. The VI seems to be more fussy: only VI chords containing the major seventh seem to work especially well.

Why does this progression work so well?

Example: "Knocks Me Off My Feet" by Stevie Wonder, bar 4 to 5.

6
  • 1
    Do you mean, in key C, going from G7 to Amaj7? A or Amaj 7 works well for me. Seems opinion based.
    – Tim
    Feb 7, 2022 at 14:44
  • @Tim I dunno, as long as the question is "why," I'm open to the possibility that there's a better answer than "because I like it, that's why." I don't have that answer—maybe it's a sort of deceptive motion but with major? I would have been interested in Gmaj7 to Amaj7, as a whole-toney thing... Feb 7, 2022 at 17:10
  • 1
    What does ∆7 mean?
    – phoog
    Feb 7, 2022 at 19:06
  • 1
    @phoog - it simply means major seventh.
    – Tim
    Feb 7, 2022 at 19:09
  • 1
    @MichaelCurtis I updated my question with an example.
    – Daan
    Feb 20, 2022 at 13:29

2 Answers 2

2

"Why does x work?" I've played piano by ear for 35 years and I've never felt a need to ask why something works. I don't understand what that question means. It works for you because you like the things the chord change does? Someone might think it sounds cheezy. (It does, a bit.) All I need is to hear what it sounds like, and look at the pattern that goes on with the notes. Ok, this sounds like this. Then I can apply the pattern in situations where it feels appropriate.

But if you ask, what happens from some perspective in that chord change, it's a much more answerable question. I can think of two things:

  • If you expected a I chord, getting VI maj7 is a surprise.
  • The VI chord, especially when it's maj7, forces chromatic alterations to the listener's assumptions of what pitches or scale degrees "fit" or are expected to be heard, which I call "harmonic context". The VI chord raises the I degree to #I (or whatever is the appropriate notation), and the maj7 raises the V degree to #V. This can be seen many ways, for example as a change between parallel major/minor. Or you could call it modal interchange between something and something.

To "milk" the same modal interchange phenomenon, and switch between A minor and A major, try this:

Amaj9 G69 F#m9 Fmaj9 (repeat)

it keeps switching scale degrees from sharp to natural and back. If you like the sound of that, then it works for you.

3
  • Thank you! You're right about the why. I guess I meant it as a lazy shorthand for what happens. I think you nailed it with your answer. Going from G7, you expect a C and G. Instead, you get a C# and G#. The chromaticism is what makes it appealing (at least to me).
    – Daan
    Feb 7, 2022 at 21:00
  • I find I mostly do a theoretical analysis of my playing or composing when it doesn't work. I'm not sure which chords are being asked about but the simple V7-vi works "because" it's only s single step different from V7-I and has good voice-leading. V7-VI in minor works too.
    – ttw
    Feb 7, 2022 at 21:15
  • @ttw In this case it would be something like G7 - Amaj7. Feb 8, 2022 at 5:52
4

These deceptive motions typically function so well because something about the chord of resolution is a part of the expected chord.

Your question could allow for two chord progressions: in the sample key of C, either G–Amaj7 or G–A♭maj7. We can address both of them.

When we have a G chord in C, we often expect it to move to C. Put another way, we expect it to move to a collection of {C, E, G}. When it moves to Amaj7, we move to a chord with a prominent E in it, thereby realizing some of our expectations while not realizing others. But because at least one pitch here is what we expected, we get a sense that this chord is kind of right, but also very very "wrong."

This explanation is even more clear when moving to A♭maj7. We expect the G chord to move to {C, E, G}, or perhaps even (in minor) {C, E♭, G}. The A♭maj7 chord actually has all three of these pitches—C, E♭, and G—with an added A♭. But because it has all three of our expected pitches, this one is really convincing as a chord of resolution...there's just that one pitch, A♭, that prevents it from sounding complete.

The VI seems to be more fussy: only VI chords containing the major seventh seem to work especially well.

I admit I don't have an answer for this one, and perhaps because my experience doesn't align with yours; I've found that these VI triads are perfectly good deceptive goal points, and that the seventh isn't necessary. But clearly our results may vary!

3
  • I suspect that only some voicings make it sound 'especially well'. I've tried all sorts, and some don't sound 'especially well' at all. Yours sceptically...
    – Tim
    Feb 7, 2022 at 19:13
  • Thank you! Sorry for the confusion - I clarified my question in the second sentence. Your 'common pitch' theory makes sense. Reading your answer, I realize that it's hard to be objective about these things. Stevie Wonder employs the V7-VI∆7 progression a lot, and perhaps my ears are now trained that way. :-)
    – Daan
    Feb 7, 2022 at 20:51
  • Have a look at this answer: music.stackexchange.com/a/121203/77758 Your theory is certainly not wrong, but I think the chromaticism is what I found appealing. That also explains why the major seventh works particularly well for me. Again, depends on the ears.
    – Daan
    Feb 7, 2022 at 21:05

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.