I'm studying the difference between 16th and 18th Century fugues. I've noticed something and wonder whether it is a notable trend, or just a coincidence.
First, consider this fugue from Missa Dies Sanctificatus by Palestrina. Each of the three expositions includes a statement of the subject or answer in each voice.
Next, consider the second fugue in WTC Book 1, in C minor. I won't paste it here because it's so ubiquitous. But I will call your attention to the counter-expositions in that fugue, which each have only one entry of the subject or answer, not one in each voice.
Given that these fugues are two common examplars, can a claim be made that 16th Century fugues are more likely to have the subject/answer stated in all voices in counter-expositions, where it was less common in Baroque?