From what I understand, vi is a lightweight predominant chord and usually leads to a stronger predominant chord and nowhere have I seen a progression from vi to I in my harmony textbooks. However IV or IV6 do progress to I in functional harmony and this is a stronger predominant chord than vi so can someone explain why this is? Is it because an ascending 5th progression works better than ascending 3rd?
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Weird, I though IV was a weaker predominant chord than vi because IV's pull to I is too strong - so strong that IV-I is often classified as a plagal cadence. In contrast, I think I've seen vi-V-vi-V passages in classical music before.– DekkadeciJun 24, 2022 at 19:25
vi leads to IV not the other way around.. IV also has ^ 4 and ^6 which are active tones. I think if vi goes to I, it sounds weak because it is an ascending 3rd and that is a very weak sounding progression. This is the only reason I can think of to my OP– armaniJun 25, 2022 at 11:01
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