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If you look at this score the arrangement adds one "voice" to the right hand chord when the voice leading gets into some forbidden parallel movement between the bass and tenor "voices". Had this other voice not been added I can only imagine that the texture would thin slightly. Is this the reason that the composer/arranger seems to have added another voice? Is this a common occurence in musical composition.

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This style of piano writing typically does not place any value on maintaining a strict number of voices, nor is it uncommon to be unconcerned about parallel octaves and even fifths. (You can even see this in classical piano parts, though in general the tendency to acknowledge the rule against parallel perfect intervals is greater, especially in the early 19th century.)

Is this the reason that the composer/arranger seems to have added another voice?

I suspect that the decision wasn't particularly conscious, but, regardless, you can look at it in one of two ways:

  1. The three voice texture gets thin in the middle of the second measure because the tenor is in parallel octaves with the bass, so the arranger added a fourth part on A.

  2. The arranger wanted a thicker texture than you would get with only A-C-E in the right hand, or wanted more volume, so the arranger added a fourth part doubling the bass at the octave.

In fact, the second interpretation makes more sense; to "correct" this arrangement in line with the classical rules you would remove the lowest note from the right-hand chords with four notes, not any of the others. This would, incidentally, yield a strict four-voice texture. But as I said, this style of writing isn't particularly concerned about that.

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  • Thank you. It may or may not be common to be concerned about parallels but it definitely should be a serious consideration in any style. If you have any texture and wish to maintain uniformity then those"strict" rules are there for a reason right? So do you thinkl that in this case they just wanted to bring out the descending bassline by adding the other voice?
    – user35708
    Commented Apr 29, 2023 at 17:03
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    @armani I don’t agree that it should be a serious consideration in any style. Heavy metal music is replete with parallel fifths to the point that not using parallel fifths risks making it no longer sound like heavy metal. That’s just one example. Certainly since the beginning of the 20th century there have been many styles where parallel fifths sound appropriate. Commented Apr 29, 2023 at 17:55
  • Todd, Using parallel 5ths consistently is appropriate in any style. The key word here is consistently. I don't know of any style in which the producer or composer wouldn't want unifromity in their accompaniment except for special effects. The use of parallel 5ths works because it is consistent in which case it could be seen as doubling. Inserting random perfect 5ths will leave weaker harmonic support in certain areas and I cant imagine why anyone would want that, even in heavy metal. If you have example of power chords where their usage is random, please share so I can see.
    – user35708
    Commented Apr 29, 2023 at 18:21

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