It should be clear but in case anyone objects with confusion over stylistic conventions: My question relates to tonal harmony and voice leading as is taught in the majority of the western worlds syllabus.
We are taught that a 7th should resolve down by step. When a 7th chord is inverted, the dissonant 7th is also usually resolved down by step. When a 65 chord is arepeggiated however, all the intervals become linear against the bass so, in the case of a ii65 chord, all the notes become consonant against the bass and the dissonant 7th - which is the 5th above the bass and is supposed to resolve downward by step - may no longer be heard as a dissonance. Does my reasoning hold then that if a 65 chord is arpeggiated you lose the essential nature of the chord and its need for resolution in the following chord? Of course, a V7 in first inversion has a diminished 5th as the 7th so it definitely still pulls down to ^3 but in the case of a ii65 as below, I can't really hear ^1 as a tendendy tone anymore after arepggiation of this chord. Since it comes at the end of the arpeggiation whatever identification on the part of the listener as identifying the D as belonging to a ii65 is considereably weakened. This could be that I am listening on a piano which has less sustain however.
Here is an example of an arpeggiated ii65 chord in C major. you will notice I put the "dissonant tone" at the end to lead into the V chord as is correct in the resolution of the ii65 chord in tonal harmony.