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(1) In my Henle Verlag edition of Chopin's Nocturne Op. 9 No. 2, the third group of notes in Measure 24 has a single beam between the first 7 notes and the last 3 notes (see red arrow). Other editions seem to simply have 3 beams throughout that group. What difference does that single beam make? How should that red part be played according to this edition?

(2) Also, are my green vertical lines indicating the note correspondence between the two staves correct?)

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    Does this answer your question? Rhythmic values don't add up in a variant of Chopin's Nocturne op. 9 no 2? Commented Feb 13 at 4:26
  • Please don't close. This is not the same as that one. That one has small notes printed, not this one. I really want to know how that red part is played. I also asked another question in the parentheses. Commented Feb 13 at 4:32
  • All of the early editions align the C natural in the r.h. with the sixth eighth note of the l.h.; does the Henle edition not say anything about why they've engraved it differently? Do they cite their sources?
    – phoog
    Commented Feb 13 at 13:57
  • Which Henle edition is this? It seems not to be HN 233/HN 185, as that edition has the three beams throughout the whole group, consistent with the editions published in Chopin's lifetime.
    – phoog
    Commented Feb 13 at 14:21
  • phoog: It the Henle book shown here: music.stackexchange.com/questions/133469/… It doesn't say anything about the source/editions. It seems to be for beginners. Commented Feb 13 at 15:42

1 Answer 1

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  1. The beaming in the Henle will be closest to how Chopin wrote it. As indicated in the linked question, there is freedom of execution, so the green boxed notes are a fine way to time the left and right hands. Other editions beam differently as a way of suggesting how the editor feels the passage is best played.

  2. The green lines are correct.

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  • Thanks. In the score shown here, is the beat value of that D (where the red arrow is) same as the other notes in the group, or three times the beat value of the other notes? If that single beam is erased, i.e. it becomes seven 3-beam notes followed by three 3-beam notes, would that be the same, or different? Commented Feb 13 at 5:16
  • @GrandAdagio As is explained in the linked question, the notation is not intended to be rhythmically exact. The reason for the single beam is to show that 1) the entire set of 10 notes takes the same time as two eighth notes, and 2) the final three notes should be played as a triplet taking the time of one sixteenth note.
    – Aaron
    Commented Feb 13 at 5:35
  • Aaron, so that single beam is just to connect the two groups; it's not a "quaver"? (I'm thicker than you all assumed. I may be confusing that one line with a quaver (one-beam).) I do understand your point of playing the whole group within the two left hand chords. The way it's written, I thought it meant that D is played a little longer. Commented Feb 13 at 5:43
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    @GrandAdagio Correct, it's not a quaver. It's just there to show that the entire grouping of 10 notes forms one unit.
    – Aaron
    Commented Feb 13 at 6:00
  • Thank you so much Aaron, for answering all my questions to satisfaction! Commented Feb 13 at 6:03

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