If you were working with one or two melodic instruments, you might get into a situation where there was an implied root note for the chord, but then the decision about the underlying harmony would also be a bit subjective.
Regular old chords stack notes a third apart. If a chord has 4 notes that can be stacked into thirds, such as C-E-G-B, it would be strange to call that chord a9 (no root) when it looks so much like a Cmaj7. Similarly, if you have a situation where you can stack just 3 thirds (a triad) such as C-E-G, you could call it a7 (no root), but why? Omitting the fifths or thirds in a chord significantly changes the way it sounds, but omitting a root is such a significant change, it'd be hard to justify not just calling the chord whatever the "lowest" note in the stack is.
In the question you linked, the first and accepted answer advocated not choosing a chord with omitted root, the second answer advocates that if you want a particular sound, write out the notes and don't leave it up for interpretation, and the third points out that the root may be in the melody line on another instrument. I don't think there's a compelling reason to build a notation for chords omitting their roots because the same notes can be specified by choosing the chord a third (or fifth) up. If a conductor is confused by seeing Cmaj7 in the piano line and a9 at the top of their score, that's their problem. While there's an argument that the function of these chords defines them more than their composition, we are long past the days when music had to make functional sense, and I, as a player, would find an instruction like (no root) to be obtuse.