Given a construct of intervals as follows:
1,#2,3,4,5,6,b7 (Dominant #2 first position)
For the purpose of general notation, as the #2 is equivalent to a b3 and the 3rd is still present, would this be classified as a major key with the raised second as the accidental since attempting to classify it as a minor would leave you without the second interval? As I understand it, your general key is derived by the root triad at the first tone. However if you have both 3rds present, is it a matter of first 3rd reached in the interval stack that determines key?
Given that I would assume a Dorian b4 is minor even though the b4 falls upon the major interval and using it in any other way effectively negates the 4th.
Would the same logic apply for 8 tone Spanish?
Am I incorrect in these assumptions?