Could you please name some examples of classical music where there are pieces in which certain intervals AND their inversions are profusely/prominently used (=play important role in the composition)?

  • Close as too broad. – Carl Witthoft Jun 9 '16 at 11:45
  • 1
    Any classical music uses inverted intervals profusely. It might depend on your point of view on what counts as "inverted", but really, you can't look at one page of a score without seeing some kind of inversion or another. – Todd Wilcox Jun 9 '16 at 13:06
  • Requesting lists of examples is off-topic here; see meta.music.stackexchange.com/a/162/28 – delete me Jun 9 '16 at 18:17

This sounds a little like a homework question, so I'll abstract it slightly in the hopes of leading you in the right direction without fulling giving you the answer. (I'll also use a much lesser-known musical example.)

By "inverting" an interval, we mean it just moves in the other direction. Think of the famous opening to Beethoven 5: dun-dun-dun-DUNNNN, where the last note is a third lower than the others. If we invert this last interval, the last pitch will be a third higher than the others.

At this point in the opening of the Adagio to Bruckner 8, the violins come in. Hear how they eventually go up one pitch and then move back down to the original one? Then, right afterwards, they go down one pitch and back up.

This would be an example of using inverted intervals, but it's intentionally a very silly one. If this is for a homework question, consider this a friendly tip that your teacher will find it suspicious if you mention the Adagio of a Bruckner symphony :-)

  • Thank you, Sam! Unfortunately, I'm not a school kid, I'm a curious adult who learns music theory on her own. So I think your example will do! I was able to find examples of chromaticism, alteration and arpeggio usage in classical music, but when it comes to intervals and their inversions there's just no information! – Angie Jun 9 '16 at 16:03
  • @Angie I think the reason why there's "no information" is because if there were information it would be "all music uses inversion, more or less". – Todd Wilcox Jun 9 '16 at 17:18
  • @Angie Sorry for any assumptions I made, but it's great to hear you're learning this on your own! You might enjoy looking up "Lyric Suite" on Wikipedia. Note that the top line of the first musical example uses intervallic inversions. The first interval (F-E) is a descending m2, while the last interval of that line (Bf-B) is a descending M7, the inversion of the m2. These inversions continue in this palindrome arrangement. – Richard Jun 9 '16 at 19:12

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