Can a pop song be written using a specific mode for the vocal melody, and another for the chord progression, when both of the modes share the same key signature? (Please note that I am not referring to the practice of "modal mixing" or "chord borrowing", consisting in borrowing chords from a parallel mode.)
I am a newbie in the study of modes, and I was trying to figure out the music theory beneath "Paris" By the Chainsmokers: both harmony and melody here share the same key signature (two sharps), but the chord progression is G Bm A F#m (with a clear sense of resolution to the chord of G, which is also the start of the loop), while the vocal melody is strongly resolving on D during the whole song. Does it make sense to see it as a Dmaj (Ionian) melody over a G lydian chord progression?
If yes, does this imply that i can layer a vocal melody written in any mode on a chord progression written in any other mode, as long as they share the same key signature (eg a D phrygian melody over a G mixolydian chord progression)? Or am I getting this all wrong, and "Paris" should be seen as a tonal song in the key of D, simply having a chord progression starting on the IV chord?