In Aristotle's Politics 1290a, he writes:
of musical modes there are said to be two kinds, the Dorian and the Phrygian; the other arrangements of the scale are comprehended under one or other of these two.
What does he mean by this?
In 1342b, he writes:
All men agree that the Dorian music is the gravest and manliest.
Why did Aristotle think this?