I'm working through Mark Sarnecki's Rudiments of music theory book, and I'm digesting the bit about augmented and diminished intervals.
I'm confused as to how a diminished unison can exist. By definition it would be one semi-tone smaller than a perfect unison, which cannot exist.
Am I missing some key idea somewhere? Thanks so much!
Edit: I don't believe the question is a duplicate, although it appears that way based only on the question headings. I posit that when the question bodies are taken into account, the questions are distinct.