I was reading through the full score of Mahler's Symphony No. 1 today to see how it's orchestrated and hopefully learn a few things from it.
This particular bar from the first movement interested me:
Taking the oboe and clarinet parts, I reduced it to make it easier to follow (upward stems representing part 1, and downward stems being part 2):
Is there any reason why Mahler chose to voice-lead in this way, with voice crossings? The same harmonies could also be voice-lead like this, for example:
Or with the first clarinet sustaining a common note between the chords:
My suspicion is that it avoids parallel fifths in the oboe parts, but I am still unsure as to why the clarinet parts was written the way they are. Moreover, if the transition between the chords is meant to be smooth (slurs), then is it not better to have the first clarinet sustaining the common tone?
Could someone help clarify the reasoning behind this?