Why the chord iii doesn't have pull towards chord I? just thinking so because Chord iii contain leading tone in it... eg in a key of C major...Chord E {E,G,B}
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Containing the leading note is a factor. Containing the 3rd and 5th of the key is another. That 3rd is a pretty strong anchor. Strong enough to make us hear iii as an incomplete I(maj7) rather than an incomplete V.
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The ⅶ tone it contains does act as a leading note, making ⅲ in fact quite unstable IMO. However, nothing in the rest of the chord really demands the particular resolution to Ⅰ; the chord resolves rather more naturally to ⅵ (like Ⅲ₇ would, except ⅲ is nowhere near as strong), or to Ⅳ (perhaps with the third in the bass, which is again the ⅵ). Both of those chords also contain the Ⅰ note that the ⅶ wants to lead to.
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Thanks man...chord iii really wants to go to IV....leading tone resolves there... – user51303 Jun 25 '18 at 5:23
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But note that in pop and jazz the maj 7 is a very common addition to the tonic chord, and in that context the 7th has no leading note function whatsoever. – Laurence Payne Jun 25 '18 at 19:10
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@LaurencePayne yeah, but Jazz and Pop is nonsense. — ...no, you're right,
Ⅰʲ⁷can be a perfectly good tonic, but only if it's played in a way so that the major seventh is perceived as the 15th overtone. That doesn't work if the bass doesn't play theⅠbut theⅲ. (Analogously, the “dominant” seventh can be a great tonic, but only if the minor seventh is played flat enough to be perceived as the 7th overtone.) – leftaroundabout Jun 25 '18 at 20:31
