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Why the chord iii doesn't have pull towards chord I? just thinking so because Chord iii contain leading tone in it... eg in a key of C major...Chord E {E,G,B}

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Containing the leading note is a factor. Containing the 3rd and 5th of the key is another. That 3rd is a pretty strong anchor. Strong enough to make us hear iii as an incomplete I(maj7) rather than an incomplete V.

  • Beat me to it... – Tim Jun 24 '18 at 18:10
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The tone it contains does act as a leading note, making in fact quite unstable IMO. However, nothing in the rest of the chord really demands the particular resolution to ; the chord resolves rather more naturally to (like ₇ would, except is nowhere near as strong), or to (perhaps with the third in the bass, which is again the ). Both of those chords also contain the note that the wants to lead to.

  • Thanks man...chord iii really wants to go to IV....leading tone resolves there... – user51303 Jun 25 '18 at 5:23
  • But note that in pop and jazz the maj 7 is a very common addition to the tonic chord, and in that context the 7th has no leading note function whatsoever. – Laurence Payne Jun 25 '18 at 19:10
  • @LaurencePayne yeah, but Jazz and Pop is nonsense. — ...no, you're right, Ⅰʲ⁷ can be a perfectly good tonic, but only if it's played in a way so that the major seventh is perceived as the 15th overtone. That doesn't work if the bass doesn't play the but the . (Analogously, the “dominant” seventh can be a great tonic, but only if the minor seventh is played flat enough to be perceived as the 7th overtone.) – leftaroundabout Jun 25 '18 at 20:31

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