1. Why Western classical music uses a lot of accidental notes in the composition which is not part of scale but Indian classical music does not entertain to use any accidental notes in classical compositions.
  2. Why western music is so eager to bring the notes which is not part of the scale. Isn't it against the rule.
  3. Is there any particular rule to be followed even to use accidentals.

closed as too broad by Carl Witthoft, guidot, Richard, Tim, Dom Nov 25 '18 at 23:05

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    Two notes: first, could you cite some examples that show the differences you’re asking about? Second, there are no rules. – Todd Wilcox Nov 19 '18 at 13:02
  • @ToddWilcox so, the first rule of Composing Club is "you do not talk about Accidentals"? – Carl Witthoft Nov 19 '18 at 13:58
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    You are comparing two different cultures. Indian music does not necessarily fit into Western music theory, and Western music theory will not always make sense to other cultures expectations. – ggcg Nov 19 '18 at 14:09

The short answer is that, in the 12-tone scale, accidentals are used either as transitional notes, as tension-builders, or because the key and/or mode (major,minor, Ionian, etc) can change many times from the titular key of the piece.

As to the tone-set used in Indian music, and the continent's development of harmony & theory, that's a major block of musical history.

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    I'd just add that classical Indian music does not use accidentals because it is generally monophonic and does not modulate, which is one function accidentals have in Western music. And the question of what the rules are for accidental use in the West is impossibly broad- any answer would be a course in music theory. – Scott Wallace Nov 21 '18 at 9:35

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