3

This question already has an answer here:

For instance, recently I have seen the use of parallel fifths in Rachmaninoff's Prelude in C♯ minor, The Bells of Moscow:

enter image description here

I thought they were completely forbidden. Then, under certain conditions, are they allowed in classical music? Which conditions are these?

|improve this question

marked as duplicate by Dom♦ Feb 8 at 13:56

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • 2
    I think this post might be worthy of it's own answer for two reasons: Pachebel and Rachmaninoff are very different styles, this example is trying to suggest the sound of bells. I think their are acoustic reasons why fifths might suggest bells. – Michael Curtis Feb 8 at 15:34
  • 2
    I think composer's name and music title in the post title will make clearer you question isn't a duplicate. – Michael Curtis Feb 8 at 15:46
  • 3
    IMO, this still looks like a reasonable duplicate of music.stackexchange.com/questions/74129/… – Dekkadeci Feb 8 at 16:23
  • 2
    We have a lot of questions about parallel 5ths and when it makes sense to forbid them and when it doesn't. I don't think we should look at every example of a parallel 5th as a new question, but instead focus on the generic answer to this question so we can help as many as possible. These two dupes while not being perfect explain the general phenomenon of perfect 5ths in compositions outside of voice leading. – Dom♦ Feb 8 at 17:28