Why did Beethoven write a leading-tone IAC here? It appears as viio 6/5 - I. Also, why does the leading tone IAC exist? enter image description here

  • 1
    Maybe these should be two different questions. I do think both are good questions, though! – user45266 Feb 12 at 17:32
  • 1
    Leading tone 7th chords are very common, especially from Beethoven onwards. Are you talking about from measure 140 to 141? Because I see a diminished 7th going to tonic there. It is probably just there as part of the picardy third setup to go from C minor that the piece has been in to an ending in C major(as I can tell by all the E naturals). The diminished 7th probably in this case gives smoother voice leading from C minor to C major than a dominant chord would. Or maybe it is just for the purpose of a dramatic ending. I know that Beethoven uses the diminished 7th a lot for drama in his works – Caters Feb 12 at 17:39
  • So the V chord is replaced by the vii chord! Good point! That Bdim7 is like a G7b9 without its root! – Maika Sakuranomiya Feb 15 at 1:36

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.