I was just listening to a rock song that is in a minor key, and the phrase ends with a v moving to a VI♭ chord.
Since the dominant chord is taken from the natural minor and doesn't contain the leading tone, is this still a deceptive cadence?
My theory textbook says that a deceptive cadence needs a chord with the leading tone followed by any chord but the tonic. It also says a chord without the leading tone followed by any chord but the tonic is a half cadence. Because the roots follow that of a deceptive cadence, does it make more sense to analyze it as that rather than a half cadence?
From 28-32 seconds. Song is in A minor, chord progression is Am-G-Em-F.