1

I was just listening to a rock song that is in a minor key, and the phrase ends with a v moving to a VI♭ chord.

Since the dominant chord is taken from the natural minor and doesn't contain the leading tone, is this still a deceptive cadence?

My theory textbook says that a deceptive cadence needs a chord with the leading tone followed by any chord but the tonic. It also says a chord without the leading tone followed by any chord but the tonic is a half cadence. Because the roots follow that of a deceptive cadence, does it make more sense to analyze it as that rather than a half cadence?

From 28-32 seconds. Song is in A minor, chord progression is Am-G-Em-F.

2

Since in rock, you can put together any 4 diatonic triads (the diminished triad usually excluded), loop them, and call it a chord progression, I'm hesitant to use functional labels here. To call the cadence "deceptive" is to imply that the alternative progression Am-G-Em-Am was expected, or at least would work. What do you think? The classical trick of first writing a deceptive and then resolving to the corresponding authentic cadence: it is quite foreign to this style, which instead chooses a chord progression and sticks to it.

That said, there are popular songs that use deceptive cadences where the dominant chord lacks a leading tone, see e.g. In Every Age (youtu.be/nR3I-McnF5c), 0:15: VII-VI is deceptive, VII-i is authentic.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.