In all sheets I can find the famous piece "Recuerdos de la Alhambra" for classical guitar (see these search results) is written in 3/4. But in some way I hear it most of the time as a 4/4 with a 2/4; mostly in a 6 note phrase the last two notes are melodically accented and lead in some way to the first beat of the next measure.

You can hear two performances here or here.

I am just wondering, do you also think it is more of a 4/4 + 2/4? Or am I just odd in what I am hearing? And why then they still notate it in 3/4 when the "accent" are not distributed in that way?

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    It's in 3/4 very slow at something like 60 b.p.m. – Tim May 23 '19 at 18:00

When played without an accent on the second 3/4's downbeat, then you're right in hearing it as 4/4 + 2/4 or, more pedantically, 3/2.

That accent may often be omitted because it would distract from the melody, which is more interesting than the straightforward harmony.

Why do "they" still notate it as 3/4? Because how it progresses from teacher to pupil isn't purely by ear, as with folk music. Some publisher or editor might have considered renotating it, but then decided it wasn't worth the effort.

This ambiguity in how to subdivide six beats occurs in other music, both classical and popular. Baroque music even expects it at some points, where it's called hemiola.

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