I note a common practice in vocal lines, where a phrase ends with a long note: in many cases such a note is written not to go up to a strong beat, but to extend a short way beyond that. For example it might be written as a note lasting a full bar, tied to a quaver/8th in the following bar.
Why do composers do that? Is it an attempt to make choir singers pronounce the final consonant more accurately together? If so, then that would not apply to songs for a solo singer, or to syllables that don't end in a consonant. So I suspect that there's an additional reason.
I ask so that I can learn when I should, or needn't, do it in songs I write.
Example of the end of one phrase and start of the next; first, without such a tie; second, with one.
ETA: since posting this question I have found this answer. It responds to a question which is similar but not identical: it concerns only a work's final note, and the significance (if any) of rests between a final note and the final bar-line. My question concerns any phrase ending in a long note.