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I have been struggling to come up with a conclusion if the first movement of Beethoven's Symphony No. 8 has a polyphonic texture. But I cannot find a valid reason. Does anyone have any solid ideas of what type of texture it has and why?

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[This is better left as a comment than an answer, but as a noob member, my reputation doesn't allow me to comment]

This has the feel of an exam question, so allowing for that, I'm going to hedge and just point you in what I think is the right direction.

The core idea behind polyphony is that you have two or more melodies that are independent of each other but which correspond in harmonically pleasing ways.

Homophony, by contrast, has parts that tend to move in sync with each other.

One can think of polyphony as being composed "horizontally" (that is, primarily melodically); whereas, homophony emphasizes the "vertical" (this is, primarily chordal). Any (part of a) piece could have elements of both, so one has to decide which plays the predominant role in developing the overall sound.

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