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Ooh. You are opening a great big box of musical history. Just to make it simple, look into a style called "bebop". This migth be one link: one example . To make it very simple, bebop players changed that accents all the time using it to accent the melodic line. If you want to make it very simple, accent the off-beat notes, and perhaps the 4:th beat ...


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Well, they are accented by nature, but what it does mean, that's a different story. Consider the motif of Bach's small fuga G major (BWV 557) (source): The 1st and 3rd beat of the beginning of the Fuga are empty, yet there is an accent on them (Bach was very systematic, so yes, there is). Also, organ doesn't really have "loudness" for single notes....


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"I know that the 4/4 time signature is played as [ONE-two-Three-four]." How do you know this? Is this from standard music training? In any time signature we need to somehow express the periodicity of the meter. There is a concept called metric accents. In reality you don't "need" to accent the strong beats of a time signature but ...


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Good question! Made me think. The first beat of a bar - any bar - is generally accented, but by how much varies considerably, and sometimes depending on the phrasing, and the actual notes involved, it's not accented at all. Had there been a phrase mark over all six notes, then I wouldn't expect any accent on that F note. As it stands, it could have an accent ...


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