Timeline for Pythagoras and his Scale Degrees: Modes [duplicate]

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Sep 28 at 17:22	comment	added	phoog		The question isn't asked in the same terms, but you won't easily find a better answer than the one by Athanasius to What scale were the very first modes based on?
Sep 28 at 15:49	history	closed	user1079505 Aaron theory		Duplicate of How did the ancient greek Ionic dialect become the name of the first mode of the diatonic major scale?
Sep 28 at 14:55	comment	added	Lazy		But quite frankly: We do not know where this comes from. It seems to be something that would have already been established by the time of the earliest known sources.
Sep 28 at 14:53	comment	added	Lazy		First of all be aware that you are talking about medieval chant theory, not ancient music theory. Actually Ionian, Aeolian and Locrian did not even exist in medieval theory and where later added for completeness. But then medieval theory is based on ancient greek theory (with many confusions and wrong translations, e.g. ancient greek scales were thought top to bottom, main greek scale was called Dorian, but would have been medieval Phrygian ...). The medieval system is mostly influenced by the systema teleion by Aristoxenus, but the connection to regions is believed to predate this.
Sep 28 at 13:11	comment	added	Andy Bonner		“The foundation of Western music mainly lies on Pythagoras”: he gets a lot of credit, especially if we need to oversimplify to the point of naming only one name, but a lot of other people had things to say about music, and of course were making music for centuries before him.
Sep 28 at 10:26	review	Close votes
Sep 28 at 15:49
Sep 28 at 8:30	comment	added	Tim		Whoever it was, the question is still o.k.
Sep 28 at 4:34	comment	added	Aaron		What leads you to believe the names come from Pythagoras? As far as I know, the names came far, far later.
Sep 28 at 4:21	history	asked	Benjamin Rivas	CC BY-SA 4.0